1. When a physician performs left ventriculography, the catheter passes into the left ventricle through which heart valve?
2. How would you bill for a
DEXA scan performed on the hips, pelvis, and spine?
3. How would you bill for a DEXA scan of the wrist and a DEXA scan of the hips with an included vertebral fracture assessment on the same visit?
4. What is the correct sequence of ICD-10-CM codes for preoperative patients?
5. What is the correct code sequence to document a patient with a perforated right central eardrum due to otitis media caused by the streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria?
6. Which of the following is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA?
7. Which modifier should you use to report
critical care performed during the postoperative period of another procedure that was performed by a different provider?
8. Which of the following services is included in critical care when performed during the critical period by the physician(s) providing critical care?
9. A patient comes to the office for a follow-up. She had carcinoma OUQ right breast, ER positive, bilateral mastectomy. Her mammogram last month did not show any evidence of disease. The provider evaluates her and asks her to follow up after six months. How do you code the encounter?
10. A patient with colon cancer arrives for a follow-up visit. The patient had a hemicolectomy. His last colonoscopy was unremarkable. His mother had colon cancer. How do you code the encounter?
11. When is it appropriate to report a Z code?
12. A patient is diagnosed with depression. How should this be reported?
13. To report a complication code, what must the provider do?
14. What is the correct sequence of ICD-10-CM codes for preoperative patients?
15. A surgeon removes a lump in the right breast and the lymph nodes between the pectoralis major and the pectoralis minor muscles in addition to some (not all) of the nodes in the axilla using an open approach. How is the procedure(s) coded?
16. Which of the following is necessary to report an underdosing code?
17. When is it appropriate to report a Z code?
18. What is the ICD-10-CM code for plaque induced chronic gingivitis?
19. If a physician documents a diagnosis but the lab report suggests something else, what should you do?
20. To report a complication code, what must the provider do?
21. Hydration was given to a patient. What documentation requirement must be met in order to bill it?
22. Which of the following may be a red flag for auditors when documented as a complication of diabetes?
23. A patient is diagnosed with depression. How should this be reported?
24. A provider sees a 6-year-old patient for a well-child visit. At the encounter, the physician administers a hemoglobin check, which comes back normal. However, during the exam, the doctor notices that the child is wheezing, and the child’s mother noted that there was a family history of asthma and other respiratory diseases. Which of the following is the correct ICD-10-CM coding for the visit?
25. What is the major cause for MS-DRGs 469 and 470 to be rejected in an audit?
26. For MS-DRG 885, documentation must include which of the following?
27. What is the most important aspect of managing A/R?
28. True or false? Submitting a claim is accomplished by just clicking a button.
29. Which of the following accurately describes a rejected claim?
30. Which parts of the medical record contribute to note bloat?
31. A patient comes in for administration of asparginase (J9020) for 92 minutes, vincristine (J9370) for 5 minutes, cytarabine (J9100) for 2 minutes, and fosaprepitant (J1453) for 35 minutes into the IV located in their arm. How is this infusion administration coded?
96413, 96409, 96411, 96365
96413, 96415, 96411, 96367
96413, 96415, 96411 x 2, 96367
96413, 96415, 96411, 96365
None
32. What is the ICD-10-CM code for plaque induced chronic gingivitis?
33. What is the CDT code for a comprehensive oral dental evaluation?
34. What is the base procedure code when the procedure performed is a diagnostic sigmoidoscopy with biopsy and control of bleeding?
35. What CPT® code should be reported for administering allergy shots that were prepared by a physician and given to the patient who will receive two injections every week at another healthcare facility?
36. If the documentation does not make it clear why a cutaneous lesion found to be benign by pathology was excised as a malignant lesion by the surgeon, how should you code the service?
37. The surgeon indicates that a lesion is an “uncertain neoplasm” prior to receiving the pathology report. How is this coded?
38. A patient presents to the physician for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right cheek. After the area is prepped and draped in a sterile fashion, the surgeon measures the lesion and documents the size of the lesion as 2.3 cm at its largest diameter. Additionally, the physician takes margins of 2 mm on each side of the lesion. Single layer closure is performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
39. A patient has a suspicious lesion of the left jaw line. Clinical diagnosis of this lesion is unknown, but due to the appearance, malignancy is a realistic concern. The lesion is excised into the subcutaneous fat measuring 0.8 cm and margins of 0.1 cm on each side. Hemostasis is achieved using light pressure. The wound is closed in layers using 5.0 Monocryl and 6.0 Prolene. Pathology revealed a nevus with clear margins. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
40. In what unit of measurement should lesions and repairs be measured?
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